Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 07:49
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you received hand-me-downs as a child, how did they make you feel?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Where's the Civil War everyone on the left said would happen?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.